| Facility failed to meet the following Requirement(s): | Corrected Date | Level of Harm | Residents Affected |
| §483.10(a) Resident Rights.
The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to persons and services inside and outside the facility, including those specified in this section.
§483.10(a)(1) A facility must treat each resident with respect and dignity and care for each resident in a manner and in an environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of his or her quality of life, recognizing each resident's individuality. The facility must protect and promote the rights of the resident.
§483.10(a)(2) The facility must provide equal access to quality care regardless of diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source. A facility must establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge, and the provision of services under the State plan for all residents regardless of payment source.
§483.10(b) Exercise of Rights.
The resident has the right to exercise his or her rights as a resident of the facility and as a citizen or resident of the United States.
§483.10(b)(1) The facility must ensure that the resident can exercise his or her rights without interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal from the facility.
§483.10(b)(2) The resident has the right to be free of interference, coercion, discrimination, and reprisal from the facility in exercising his or her rights and to be supported by the facility in the exercise of his or her rights as required under this subpart. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(a) Resident Rights.
The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to persons and services inside and outside the facility, including those specified in this section.
§483.10(a)(1) A facility must treat each resident with respect and dignity and care for each resident in a manner and in an environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of his or her quality of life, recognizing each resident's individuality. The facility must protect and promote the rights of the resident.
§483.10(a)(2) The facility must provide equal access to quality care regardless of diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source. A facility must establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge, and the provision of services under the State plan for all residents regardless of payment source.
§483.10(b) Exercise of Rights.
The resident has the right to exercise his or her rights as a resident of the facility and as a citizen or resident of the United States.
§483.10(b)(1) The facility must ensure that the resident can exercise his or her rights without interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal from the facility.
§483.10(b)(2) The resident has the right to be free of interference, coercion, discrimination, and reprisal from the facility in exercising his or her rights and to be supported by the facility in the exercise of his or her rights as required under this subpart. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(a) Resident Rights.
The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to persons and services inside and outside the facility, including those specified in this section.
§483.10(a)(1) A facility must treat each resident with respect and dignity and care for each resident in a manner and in an environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of his or her quality of life, recognizing each resident's individuality. The facility must protect and promote the rights of the resident.
§483.10(a)(2) The facility must provide equal access to quality care regardless of diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source. A facility must establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge, and the provision of services under the State plan for all residents regardless of payment source.
§483.10(b) Exercise of Rights.
The resident has the right to exercise his or her rights as a resident of the facility and as a citizen or resident of the United States.
§483.10(b)(1) The facility must ensure that the resident can exercise his or her rights without interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal from the facility.
§483.10(b)(2) The resident has the right to be free of interference, coercion, discrimination, and reprisal from the facility in exercising his or her rights and to be supported by the facility in the exercise of his or her rights as required under this subpart. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(e)(3) The right to reside and receive services in the facility with reasonable accommodation of resident needs and preferences except when to do so would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other residents. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.10(e)(3) The right to reside and receive services in the facility with reasonable accommodation of resident needs and preferences except when to do so would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other residents. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.10(e)(3) The right to reside and receive services in the facility with reasonable accommodation of resident needs and preferences except when to do so would endanger the health or safety of the resident or other residents. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.10(f)(10) The resident has a right to manage his or her financial affairs. This includes the right to know, in advance, what charges a facility may impose against a resident's personal funds.
(i) The facility must not require residents to deposit their personal funds with the facility. If a resident chooses to deposit personal funds with the facility, upon written authorization of a resident, the facility must act as a fiduciary of the resident's funds and hold, safeguard, manage, and account for the personal funds of the resident deposited with the facility, as specified in this section.
(ii) Deposit of Funds.
(A) In general: Except as set out in paragraph (f)( l0)(ii)(B) of this section, the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain a resident's personal funds that do not exceed $100 in a non-interest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund.
(B) Residents whose care is funded by Medicaid: The facility must deposit the residents' personal funds in excess of $50 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain personal funds that do not exceed $50 in a noninterest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10) The resident has a right to manage his or her financial affairs. This includes the right to know, in advance, what charges a facility may impose against a resident's personal funds.
(i) The facility must not require residents to deposit their personal funds with the facility. If a resident chooses to deposit personal funds with the facility, upon written authorization of a resident, the facility must act as a fiduciary of the resident's funds and hold, safeguard, manage, and account for the personal funds of the resident deposited with the facility, as specified in this section.
(ii) Deposit of Funds.
(A) In general: Except as set out in paragraph (f)( l0)(ii)(B) of this section, the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain a resident's personal funds that do not exceed $100 in a non-interest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund.
(B) Residents whose care is funded by Medicaid: The facility must deposit the residents' personal funds in excess of $50 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain personal funds that do not exceed $50 in a noninterest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10) The resident has a right to manage his or her financial affairs. This includes the right to know, in advance, what charges a facility may impose against a resident's personal funds.
(i) The facility must not require residents to deposit their personal funds with the facility. If a resident chooses to deposit personal funds with the facility, upon written authorization of a resident, the facility must act as a fiduciary of the resident's funds and hold, safeguard, manage, and account for the personal funds of the resident deposited with the facility, as specified in this section.
(ii) Deposit of Funds.
(A) In general: Except as set out in paragraph (f)( l0)(ii)(B) of this section, the facility must deposit any residents' personal funds in excess of $100 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain a resident's personal funds that do not exceed $100 in a non-interest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund.
(B) Residents whose care is funded by Medicaid: The facility must deposit the residents' personal funds in excess of $50 in an interest bearing account (or accounts) that is separate from any of the facility's operating accounts, and that credits all interest earned on resident's funds to that account. (In pooled accounts, there must be a separate accounting for each resident's share.) The facility must maintain personal funds that do not exceed $50 in a noninterest bearing account, interest-bearing account, or petty cash fund. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(iii) Accounting and Records.
(A) The facility must establish and maintain a system that assures a full and complete and separate accounting, according to generally accepted accounting principles, of each resident's personal funds entrusted to the facility on the resident's behalf.
(B) The system must preclude any commingling of resident funds with facility funds or with the funds of any person other than another resident.
(C)The individual financial record must be available to the resident through quarterly statements and upon request. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(iii) Accounting and Records.
(A) The facility must establish and maintain a system that assures a full and complete and separate accounting, according to generally accepted accounting principles, of each resident's personal funds entrusted to the facility on the resident's behalf.
(B) The system must preclude any commingling of resident funds with facility funds or with the funds of any person other than another resident.
(C)The individual financial record must be available to the resident through quarterly statements and upon request. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(iii) Accounting and Records.
(A) The facility must establish and maintain a system that assures a full and complete and separate accounting, according to generally accepted accounting principles, of each resident's personal funds entrusted to the facility on the resident's behalf.
(B) The system must preclude any commingling of resident funds with facility funds or with the funds of any person other than another resident.
(C)The individual financial record must be available to the resident through quarterly statements and upon request. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(iv) Notice of certain balances.
The facility must notify each resident that receives Medicaid benefits-
(A) When the amount in the resident's account reaches $200 less than the SSI resource limit for one person, specified in section 1611(a)(3)(B) of the Act; and
(B) That, if the amount in the account, in addition to the value of the resident's other nonexempt resources, reaches the SSI resource limit for one person, the resident may lose eligibility for Medicaid or SSI.
§483.10(f)(10)(v) Conveyance upon discharge, eviction, or death.
Upon the discharge, eviction, or death of a resident with a personal fund deposited with the facility, the facility must convey within 30 days the resident's funds, and a final accounting of those funds, to the resident, or in the case of death, the individual or probate jurisdiction administering the resident's estate, in accordance with State law. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(iv) Notice of certain balances.
The facility must notify each resident that receives Medicaid benefits-
(A) When the amount in the resident's account reaches $200 less than the SSI resource limit for one person, specified in section 1611(a)(3)(B) of the Act; and
(B) That, if the amount in the account, in addition to the value of the resident's other nonexempt resources, reaches the SSI resource limit for one person, the resident may lose eligibility for Medicaid or SSI.
§483.10(f)(10)(v) Conveyance upon discharge, eviction, or death.
Upon the discharge, eviction, or death of a resident with a personal fund deposited with the facility, the facility must convey within 30 days the resident's funds, and a final accounting of those funds, to the resident, or in the case of death, the individual or probate jurisdiction administering the resident's estate, in accordance with State law. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(iv) Notice of certain balances.
The facility must notify each resident that receives Medicaid benefits-
(A) When the amount in the resident's account reaches $200 less than the SSI resource limit for one person, specified in section 1611(a)(3)(B) of the Act; and
(B) That, if the amount in the account, in addition to the value of the resident's other nonexempt resources, reaches the SSI resource limit for one person, the resident may lose eligibility for Medicaid or SSI.
§483.10(f)(10)(v) Conveyance upon discharge, eviction, or death.
Upon the discharge, eviction, or death of a resident with a personal fund deposited with the facility, the facility must convey within 30 days the resident's funds, and a final accounting of those funds, to the resident, or in the case of death, the individual or probate jurisdiction administering the resident's estate, in accordance with State law. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(vi) Assurance of financial security.
The facility must purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Secretary, to assure the security of all personal funds of residents deposited with the facility. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(vi) Assurance of financial security.
The facility must purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Secretary, to assure the security of all personal funds of residents deposited with the facility. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(f)(10)(vi) Assurance of financial security.
The facility must purchase a surety bond, or otherwise provide assurance satisfactory to the Secretary, to assure the security of all personal funds of residents deposited with the facility. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(i) Safe Environment.
The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely.
The facility must provide-
§483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.
§483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;
§483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;
§483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv);
§483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;
§483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and
§483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(i) Safe Environment.
The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely.
The facility must provide-
§483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.
§483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;
§483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;
§483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv);
§483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;
§483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and
§483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.10(i) Safe Environment.
The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely.
The facility must provide-
§483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible.
(i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk.
(ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft.
§483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior;
§483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition;
§483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv);
§483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas;
§483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and
§483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.15(c)(3) Notice before transfer.
Before a facility transfers or discharges a resident, the facility must-
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
§483.15(c)(4) Timing of the notice.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (c)(8) of this section, the notice of transfer or discharge required under this section must be made by the facility at least 30 days before the resident is transferred or discharged.
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when-
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.
§483.15(c)(5) Contents of the notice. The written notice specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following:
(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001 et seq.); and
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.
§483.15(c)(6) Changes to the notice.
If the information in the notice changes prior to effecting the transfer or discharge, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information becomes available.
§483.15(c)(8) Notice in advance of facility closure
In the case of facility closure, the individual who is the administrator of the facility must provide written notification prior to the impending closure to the State Survey Agency, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, residents of the facility, and the resident representatives, as well as the plan for the transfer and adequate relocation of the residents, as required at § 483.70(l). |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.15(c)(3) Notice before transfer.
Before a facility transfers or discharges a resident, the facility must-
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
§483.15(c)(4) Timing of the notice.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (c)(8) of this section, the notice of transfer or discharge required under this section must be made by the facility at least 30 days before the resident is transferred or discharged.
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when-
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.
§483.15(c)(5) Contents of the notice. The written notice specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following:
(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001 et seq.); and
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.
§483.15(c)(6) Changes to the notice.
If the information in the notice changes prior to effecting the transfer or discharge, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information becomes available.
§483.15(c)(8) Notice in advance of facility closure
In the case of facility closure, the individual who is the administrator of the facility must provide written notification prior to the impending closure to the State Survey Agency, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, residents of the facility, and the resident representatives, as well as the plan for the transfer and adequate relocation of the residents, as required at § 483.70(l). |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.15(c)(3) Notice before transfer.
Before a facility transfers or discharges a resident, the facility must-
(i) Notify the resident and the resident's representative(s) of the transfer or discharge and the reasons for the move in writing and in a language and manner they understand. The facility must send a copy of the notice to a representative of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.
(ii) Record the reasons for the transfer or discharge in the resident's medical record in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Include in the notice the items described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
§483.15(c)(4) Timing of the notice.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii) and (c)(8) of this section, the notice of transfer or discharge required under this section must be made by the facility at least 30 days before the resident is transferred or discharged.
(ii) Notice must be made as soon as practicable before transfer or discharge when-
(A) The safety of individuals in the facility would be endangered under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section;
(B) The health of individuals in the facility would be endangered, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section;
(C) The resident's health improves sufficiently to allow a more immediate transfer or discharge, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
(D) An immediate transfer or discharge is required by the resident's urgent medical needs, under paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section; or
(E) A resident has not resided in the facility for 30 days.
§483.15(c)(5) Contents of the notice. The written notice specified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section must include the following:
(i) The reason for transfer or discharge;
(ii) The effective date of transfer or discharge;
(iii) The location to which the resident is transferred or discharged;
(iv) A statement of the resident's appeal rights, including the name, address (mailing and email), and telephone number of the entity which receives such requests; and information on how to obtain an appeal form and assistance in completing the form and submitting the appeal hearing request;
(v) The name, address (mailing and email) and telephone number of the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman;
(vi) For nursing facility residents with intellectual and developmental disabilities or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with developmental disabilities established under Part C of the Developmental Disabilities Assistance and Bill of Rights Act of 2000 (Pub. L. 106-402, codified at 42 U.S.C. 15001 et seq.); and
(vii) For nursing facility residents with a mental disorder or related disabilities, the mailing and email address and telephone number of the agency responsible for the protection and advocacy of individuals with a mental disorder established under the Protection and Advocacy for Mentally Ill Individuals Act.
§483.15(c)(6) Changes to the notice.
If the information in the notice changes prior to effecting the transfer or discharge, the facility must update the recipients of the notice as soon as practicable once the updated information becomes available.
§483.15(c)(8) Notice in advance of facility closure
In the case of facility closure, the individual who is the administrator of the facility must provide written notification prior to the impending closure to the State Survey Agency, the Office of the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman, residents of the facility, and the resident representatives, as well as the plan for the transfer and adequate relocation of the residents, as required at § 483.70(l). |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.15(d) Notice of bed-hold policy and return-
§483.15(d)(1) Notice before transfer. Before a nursing facility transfers a resident to a hospital or the resident goes on therapeutic leave, the nursing facility must provide written information to the resident or resident representative that specifies-
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
§483.15(d)(2) Bed-hold notice upon transfer. At the time of transfer of a resident for hospitalization or therapeutic leave, a nursing facility must provide to the resident and the resident representative written notice which specifies the duration of the bed-hold policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.15(d) Notice of bed-hold policy and return-
§483.15(d)(1) Notice before transfer. Before a nursing facility transfers a resident to a hospital or the resident goes on therapeutic leave, the nursing facility must provide written information to the resident or resident representative that specifies-
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
§483.15(d)(2) Bed-hold notice upon transfer. At the time of transfer of a resident for hospitalization or therapeutic leave, a nursing facility must provide to the resident and the resident representative written notice which specifies the duration of the bed-hold policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.15(d) Notice of bed-hold policy and return-
§483.15(d)(1) Notice before transfer. Before a nursing facility transfers a resident to a hospital or the resident goes on therapeutic leave, the nursing facility must provide written information to the resident or resident representative that specifies-
(i) The duration of the state bed-hold policy, if any, during which the resident is permitted to return and resume residence in the nursing facility;
(ii) The reserve bed payment policy in the state plan, under § 447.40 of this chapter, if any;
(iii) The nursing facility's policies regarding bed-hold periods, which must be consistent with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, permitting a resident to return; and
(iv) The information specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
§483.15(d)(2) Bed-hold notice upon transfer. At the time of transfer of a resident for hospitalization or therapeutic leave, a nursing facility must provide to the resident and the resident representative written notice which specifies the duration of the bed-hold policy described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.20 Resident Assessment
The facility must conduct initially and periodically a comprehensive, accurate, standardized reproducible assessment of each resident's functional capacity.
§483.20(b) Comprehensive Assessments
§483.20(b)(1) Resident Assessment Instrument. A facility must make a comprehensive assessment of a resident's needs, strengths, goals, life history and preferences, using the resident assessment instrument (RAI) specified by CMS. The assessment must include at least the following:
(i) Identification and demographic information
(ii) Customary routine.
(iii) Cognitive patterns.
(iv) Communication.
(v) Vision.
(vi) Mood and behavior patterns.
(vii) Psychological well-being.
(viii) Physical functioning and structural problems.
(ix) Continence.
(x) Disease diagnosis and health conditions.
(xi) Dental and nutritional status.
(xii) Skin Conditions.
(xiii) Activity pursuit.
(xiv) Medications.
(xv) Special treatments and procedures.
(xvi) Discharge planning.
(xvii) Documentation of summary information regarding the additional assessment performed on the care areas triggered by the completion of the Minimum Data Set (MDS).
(xviii) Documentation of participation in assessment. The assessment process must include direct observation and communication with the resident, as well as communication with licensed and nonlicensed direct care staff members on all shifts.
§483.20(b)(2) When required. Subject to the timeframes prescribed in §413.343(b) of this chapter, a facility must conduct a comprehensive assessment of a resident in accordance with the timeframes specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. The timeframes prescribed in §413.343(b) of this chapter do not apply to CAHs.
(i) Within 14 calendar days after admission, excluding readmissions in which there is no significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purposes of this section, "readmission" means a return to the facility following a temporary absence for hospitalization or therapeutic leave.)
(iii)Not less than once every 12 months. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.20 Resident Assessment
The facility must conduct initially and periodically a comprehensive, accurate, standardized reproducible assessment of each resident's functional capacity.
§483.20(b) Comprehensive Assessments
§483.20(b)(1) Resident Assessment Instrument. A facility must make a comprehensive assessment of a resident's needs, strengths, goals, life history and preferences, using the resident assessment instrument (RAI) specified by CMS. The assessment must include at least the following:
(i) Identification and demographic information
(ii) Customary routine.
(iii) Cognitive patterns.
(iv) Communication.
(v) Vision.
(vi) Mood and behavior patterns.
(vii) Psychological well-being.
(viii) Physical functioning and structural problems.
(ix) Continence.
(x) Disease diagnosis and health conditions.
(xi) Dental and nutritional status.
(xii) Skin Conditions.
(xiii) Activity pursuit.
(xiv) Medications.
(xv) Special treatments and procedures.
(xvi) Discharge planning.
(xvii) Documentation of summary information regarding the additional assessment performed on the care areas triggered by the completion of the Minimum Data Set (MDS).
(xviii) Documentation of participation in assessment. The assessment process must include direct observation and communication with the resident, as well as communication with licensed and nonlicensed direct care staff members on all shifts.
§483.20(b)(2) When required. Subject to the timeframes prescribed in §413.343(b) of this chapter, a facility must conduct a comprehensive assessment of a resident in accordance with the timeframes specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. The timeframes prescribed in §413.343(b) of this chapter do not apply to CAHs.
(i) Within 14 calendar days after admission, excluding readmissions in which there is no significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purposes of this section, "readmission" means a return to the facility following a temporary absence for hospitalization or therapeutic leave.)
(iii)Not less than once every 12 months. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.20 Resident Assessment
The facility must conduct initially and periodically a comprehensive, accurate, standardized reproducible assessment of each resident's functional capacity.
§483.20(b) Comprehensive Assessments
§483.20(b)(1) Resident Assessment Instrument. A facility must make a comprehensive assessment of a resident's needs, strengths, goals, life history and preferences, using the resident assessment instrument (RAI) specified by CMS. The assessment must include at least the following:
(i) Identification and demographic information
(ii) Customary routine.
(iii) Cognitive patterns.
(iv) Communication.
(v) Vision.
(vi) Mood and behavior patterns.
(vii) Psychological well-being.
(viii) Physical functioning and structural problems.
(ix) Continence.
(x) Disease diagnosis and health conditions.
(xi) Dental and nutritional status.
(xii) Skin Conditions.
(xiii) Activity pursuit.
(xiv) Medications.
(xv) Special treatments and procedures.
(xvi) Discharge planning.
(xvii) Documentation of summary information regarding the additional assessment performed on the care areas triggered by the completion of the Minimum Data Set (MDS).
(xviii) Documentation of participation in assessment. The assessment process must include direct observation and communication with the resident, as well as communication with licensed and nonlicensed direct care staff members on all shifts.
§483.20(b)(2) When required. Subject to the timeframes prescribed in §413.343(b) of this chapter, a facility must conduct a comprehensive assessment of a resident in accordance with the timeframes specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. The timeframes prescribed in §413.343(b) of this chapter do not apply to CAHs.
(i) Within 14 calendar days after admission, excluding readmissions in which there is no significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purposes of this section, "readmission" means a return to the facility following a temporary absence for hospitalization or therapeutic leave.)
(iii)Not less than once every 12 months. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.21 Comprehensive Person-Centered Care Planning
§483.21(a) Baseline Care Plans
§483.21(a)(1) The facility must develop and implement a baseline care plan for each resident that includes the instructions needed to provide effective and person-centered care of the resident that meet professional standards of quality care. The baseline care plan must-
(i) Be developed within 48 hours of a resident's admission.
(ii) Include the minimum healthcare information necessary to properly care for a resident including, but not limited to-
(A) Initial goals based on admission orders.
(B) Physician orders.
(C) Dietary orders.
(D) Therapy services.
(E) Social services.
(F) PASARR recommendation, if applicable.
§483.21(a)(2) The facility may develop a comprehensive care plan in place of the baseline care plan if the comprehensive care plan-
(i) Is developed within 48 hours of the resident's admission.
(ii) Meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section (excepting paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section).
§483.21(a)(3) The facility must provide the resident and their representative with a summary of the baseline care plan that includes but is not limited to:
(i) The initial goals of the resident.
(ii) A summary of the resident's medications and dietary instructions.
(iii) Any services and treatments to be administered by the facility and personnel acting on behalf of the facility.
(iv) Any updated information based on the details of the comprehensive care plan, as necessary. |
4/21/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.21 Comprehensive Person-Centered Care Planning
§483.21(a) Baseline Care Plans
§483.21(a)(1) The facility must develop and implement a baseline care plan for each resident that includes the instructions needed to provide effective and person-centered care of the resident that meet professional standards of quality care. The baseline care plan must-
(i) Be developed within 48 hours of a resident's admission.
(ii) Include the minimum healthcare information necessary to properly care for a resident including, but not limited to-
(A) Initial goals based on admission orders.
(B) Physician orders.
(C) Dietary orders.
(D) Therapy services.
(E) Social services.
(F) PASARR recommendation, if applicable.
§483.21(a)(2) The facility may develop a comprehensive care plan in place of the baseline care plan if the comprehensive care plan-
(i) Is developed within 48 hours of the resident's admission.
(ii) Meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section (excepting paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section).
§483.21(a)(3) The facility must provide the resident and their representative with a summary of the baseline care plan that includes but is not limited to:
(i) The initial goals of the resident.
(ii) A summary of the resident's medications and dietary instructions.
(iii) Any services and treatments to be administered by the facility and personnel acting on behalf of the facility.
(iv) Any updated information based on the details of the comprehensive care plan, as necessary. |
4/21/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.21 Comprehensive Person-Centered Care Planning
§483.21(a) Baseline Care Plans
§483.21(a)(1) The facility must develop and implement a baseline care plan for each resident that includes the instructions needed to provide effective and person-centered care of the resident that meet professional standards of quality care. The baseline care plan must-
(i) Be developed within 48 hours of a resident's admission.
(ii) Include the minimum healthcare information necessary to properly care for a resident including, but not limited to-
(A) Initial goals based on admission orders.
(B) Physician orders.
(C) Dietary orders.
(D) Therapy services.
(E) Social services.
(F) PASARR recommendation, if applicable.
§483.21(a)(2) The facility may develop a comprehensive care plan in place of the baseline care plan if the comprehensive care plan-
(i) Is developed within 48 hours of the resident's admission.
(ii) Meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section (excepting paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section).
§483.21(a)(3) The facility must provide the resident and their representative with a summary of the baseline care plan that includes but is not limited to:
(i) The initial goals of the resident.
(ii) A summary of the resident's medications and dietary instructions.
(iii) Any services and treatments to be administered by the facility and personnel acting on behalf of the facility.
(iv) Any updated information based on the details of the comprehensive care plan, as necessary. |
4/21/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans
§483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following -
(i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and
(ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6).
(iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record.
(iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)-
(A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes.
(B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose.
(C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans
§483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following -
(i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and
(ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6).
(iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record.
(iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)-
(A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes.
(B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose.
(C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans
§483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following -
(i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and
(ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6).
(iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record.
(iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)-
(A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes.
(B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose.
(C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans
§483.21(b)(2) A comprehensive care plan must be-
(i) Developed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
(ii) Prepared by an interdisciplinary team, that includes but is not limited to--
(A) The attending physician.
(B) A registered nurse with responsibility for the resident.
(C) A nurse aide with responsibility for the resident.
(D) A member of food and nutrition services staff.
(E) To the extent practicable, the participation of the resident and the resident's representative(s). An explanation must be included in a resident's medical record if the participation of the resident and their resident representative is determined not practicable for the development of the resident's care plan.
(F) Other appropriate staff or professionals in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs or as requested by the resident.
(iii)Reviewed and revised by the interdisciplinary team after each assessment, including both the comprehensive and quarterly review assessments. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans
§483.21(b)(2) A comprehensive care plan must be-
(i) Developed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
(ii) Prepared by an interdisciplinary team, that includes but is not limited to--
(A) The attending physician.
(B) A registered nurse with responsibility for the resident.
(C) A nurse aide with responsibility for the resident.
(D) A member of food and nutrition services staff.
(E) To the extent practicable, the participation of the resident and the resident's representative(s). An explanation must be included in a resident's medical record if the participation of the resident and their resident representative is determined not practicable for the development of the resident's care plan.
(F) Other appropriate staff or professionals in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs or as requested by the resident.
(iii)Reviewed and revised by the interdisciplinary team after each assessment, including both the comprehensive and quarterly review assessments. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans
§483.21(b)(2) A comprehensive care plan must be-
(i) Developed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment.
(ii) Prepared by an interdisciplinary team, that includes but is not limited to--
(A) The attending physician.
(B) A registered nurse with responsibility for the resident.
(C) A nurse aide with responsibility for the resident.
(D) A member of food and nutrition services staff.
(E) To the extent practicable, the participation of the resident and the resident's representative(s). An explanation must be included in a resident's medical record if the participation of the resident and their resident representative is determined not practicable for the development of the resident's care plan.
(F) Other appropriate staff or professionals in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs or as requested by the resident.
(iii)Reviewed and revised by the interdisciplinary team after each assessment, including both the comprehensive and quarterly review assessments. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.24(a)(2) A resident who is unable to carry out activities of daily living receives the necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming, and personal and oral hygiene; |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.24(a)(2) A resident who is unable to carry out activities of daily living receives the necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming, and personal and oral hygiene; |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.24(a)(2) A resident who is unable to carry out activities of daily living receives the necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming, and personal and oral hygiene; |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.24(a)(3) Personnel provide basic life support, including CPR, to a resident requiring such emergency care prior to the arrival of emergency medical personnel and subject to related physician orders and the resident's advance directives. |
4/20/2022
| Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health or Safety | Few |
| §483.24(a)(3) Personnel provide basic life support, including CPR, to a resident requiring such emergency care prior to the arrival of emergency medical personnel and subject to related physician orders and the resident's advance directives. |
4/20/2022
| Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health or Safety | Few |
| §483.24(a)(3) Personnel provide basic life support, including CPR, to a resident requiring such emergency care prior to the arrival of emergency medical personnel and subject to related physician orders and the resident's advance directives. |
4/20/2022
| Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health or Safety | Few |
| §483.24(c) Activities.
§483.24(c)(1) The facility must provide, based on the comprehensive assessment and care plan and the preferences of each resident, an ongoing program to support residents in their choice of activities, both facility-sponsored group and individual activities and independent activities, designed to meet the interests of and support the physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, encouraging both independence and interaction in the community. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.24(c) Activities.
§483.24(c)(1) The facility must provide, based on the comprehensive assessment and care plan and the preferences of each resident, an ongoing program to support residents in their choice of activities, both facility-sponsored group and individual activities and independent activities, designed to meet the interests of and support the physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, encouraging both independence and interaction in the community. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.24(c) Activities.
§483.24(c)(1) The facility must provide, based on the comprehensive assessment and care plan and the preferences of each resident, an ongoing program to support residents in their choice of activities, both facility-sponsored group and individual activities and independent activities, designed to meet the interests of and support the physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, encouraging both independence and interaction in the community. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| § 483.25 Quality of care
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices. |
4/20/2022
| Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health or Safety | Few |
| § 483.25 Quality of care
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices. |
4/20/2022
| Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health or Safety | Few |
| § 483.25 Quality of care
Quality of care is a fundamental principle that applies to all treatment and care provided to facility residents. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' choices. |
4/20/2022
| Immediate Jeopardy to Resident Health or Safety | Few |
| §483.25(c) Mobility.
§483.25(c)(1) The facility must ensure that a resident who enters the facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that a reduction in range of motion is unavoidable; and
§483.25(c)(2) A resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and/or to prevent further decrease in range of motion.
§483.25(c)(3) A resident with limited mobility receives appropriate services, equipment, and assistance to maintain or improve mobility with the maximum practicable independence unless a reduction in mobility is demonstrably unavoidable. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.25(c) Mobility.
§483.25(c)(1) The facility must ensure that a resident who enters the facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that a reduction in range of motion is unavoidable; and
§483.25(c)(2) A resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and/or to prevent further decrease in range of motion.
§483.25(c)(3) A resident with limited mobility receives appropriate services, equipment, and assistance to maintain or improve mobility with the maximum practicable independence unless a reduction in mobility is demonstrably unavoidable. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.25(c) Mobility.
§483.25(c)(1) The facility must ensure that a resident who enters the facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that a reduction in range of motion is unavoidable; and
§483.25(c)(2) A resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and/or to prevent further decrease in range of motion.
§483.25(c)(3) A resident with limited mobility receives appropriate services, equipment, and assistance to maintain or improve mobility with the maximum practicable independence unless a reduction in mobility is demonstrably unavoidable. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.25(d) Accidents.
The facility must ensure that -
§483.25(d)(1) The resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as is possible; and
§483.25(d)(2)Each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents. |
7/22/2022
| Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(d) Accidents.
The facility must ensure that -
§483.25(d)(1) The resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as is possible; and
§483.25(d)(2)Each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents. |
7/22/2022
| Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(d) Accidents.
The facility must ensure that -
§483.25(d)(1) The resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as is possible; and
§483.25(d)(2)Each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents. |
7/22/2022
| Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(k) Pain Management.
The facility must ensure that pain management is provided to residents who require such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences. |
7/22/2022
| Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(k) Pain Management.
The facility must ensure that pain management is provided to residents who require such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences. |
7/22/2022
| Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(k) Pain Management.
The facility must ensure that pain management is provided to residents who require such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences. |
7/22/2022
| Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(l) Dialysis.
The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(l) Dialysis.
The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(l) Dialysis.
The facility must ensure that residents who require dialysis receive such services, consistent with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents' goals and preferences. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.25(n) Bed Rails.
The facility must attempt to use appropriate alternatives prior to installing a side or bed rail. If a bed or side rail is used, the facility must ensure correct installation, use, and maintenance of bed rails, including but not limited to the following elements.
§483.25(n)(1) Assess the resident for risk of entrapment from bed rails prior to installation.
§483.25(n)(2) Review the risks and benefits of bed rails with the resident or resident representative and obtain informed consent prior to installation.
§483.25(n)(3) Ensure that the bed's dimensions are appropriate for the resident's size and weight.
§483.25(n)(4) Follow the manufacturers' recommendations and specifications for installing and maintaining bed rails. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.25(n) Bed Rails.
The facility must attempt to use appropriate alternatives prior to installing a side or bed rail. If a bed or side rail is used, the facility must ensure correct installation, use, and maintenance of bed rails, including but not limited to the following elements.
§483.25(n)(1) Assess the resident for risk of entrapment from bed rails prior to installation.
§483.25(n)(2) Review the risks and benefits of bed rails with the resident or resident representative and obtain informed consent prior to installation.
§483.25(n)(3) Ensure that the bed's dimensions are appropriate for the resident's size and weight.
§483.25(n)(4) Follow the manufacturers' recommendations and specifications for installing and maintaining bed rails. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.25(n) Bed Rails.
The facility must attempt to use appropriate alternatives prior to installing a side or bed rail. If a bed or side rail is used, the facility must ensure correct installation, use, and maintenance of bed rails, including but not limited to the following elements.
§483.25(n)(1) Assess the resident for risk of entrapment from bed rails prior to installation.
§483.25(n)(2) Review the risks and benefits of bed rails with the resident or resident representative and obtain informed consent prior to installation.
§483.25(n)(3) Ensure that the bed's dimensions are appropriate for the resident's size and weight.
§483.25(n)(4) Follow the manufacturers' recommendations and specifications for installing and maintaining bed rails. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.35(a) Sufficient Staff.
The facility must have sufficient nursing staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to provide nursing and related services to assure resident safety and attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, as determined by resident assessments and individual plans of care and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e).
§483.35(a)(1) The facility must provide services by sufficient numbers of each of the following types of personnel on a 24-hour basis to provide nursing care to all residents in accordance with resident care plans:
(i) Except when waived under paragraph (e) of this section, licensed nurses; and
(ii) Other nursing personnel, including but not limited to nurse aides.
§483.35(a)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) of this section, the facility must designate a licensed nurse to serve as a charge nurse on each tour of duty. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.35(a) Sufficient Staff.
The facility must have sufficient nursing staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to provide nursing and related services to assure resident safety and attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, as determined by resident assessments and individual plans of care and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e).
§483.35(a)(1) The facility must provide services by sufficient numbers of each of the following types of personnel on a 24-hour basis to provide nursing care to all residents in accordance with resident care plans:
(i) Except when waived under paragraph (e) of this section, licensed nurses; and
(ii) Other nursing personnel, including but not limited to nurse aides.
§483.35(a)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) of this section, the facility must designate a licensed nurse to serve as a charge nurse on each tour of duty. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.35(a) Sufficient Staff.
The facility must have sufficient nursing staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to provide nursing and related services to assure resident safety and attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being of each resident, as determined by resident assessments and individual plans of care and considering the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e).
§483.35(a)(1) The facility must provide services by sufficient numbers of each of the following types of personnel on a 24-hour basis to provide nursing care to all residents in accordance with resident care plans:
(i) Except when waived under paragraph (e) of this section, licensed nurses; and
(ii) Other nursing personnel, including but not limited to nurse aides.
§483.35(a)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) of this section, the facility must designate a licensed nurse to serve as a charge nurse on each tour of duty. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.35(b) Registered nurse
§483.35(b)(1) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must use the services of a registered nurse for at least 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week.
§483.35(b)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must designate a registered nurse to serve as the director of nursing on a full time basis.
§483.35(b)(3) The director of nursing may serve as a charge nurse only when the facility has an average daily occupancy of 60 or fewer residents. |
8/8/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.35(b) Registered nurse
§483.35(b)(1) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must use the services of a registered nurse for at least 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week.
§483.35(b)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must designate a registered nurse to serve as the director of nursing on a full time basis.
§483.35(b)(3) The director of nursing may serve as a charge nurse only when the facility has an average daily occupancy of 60 or fewer residents. |
8/8/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.35(b) Registered nurse
§483.35(b)(1) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must use the services of a registered nurse for at least 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week.
§483.35(b)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must designate a registered nurse to serve as the director of nursing on a full time basis.
§483.35(b)(3) The director of nursing may serve as a charge nurse only when the facility has an average daily occupancy of 60 or fewer residents. |
8/8/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs.
§483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories:
(i) Anti-psychotic;
(ii) Anti-depressant;
(iii) Anti-anxiety; and
(iv) Hypnotic
Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that---
§483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record;
§483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs;
§483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and
§483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order.
§483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs.
§483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories:
(i) Anti-psychotic;
(ii) Anti-depressant;
(iii) Anti-anxiety; and
(iv) Hypnotic
Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that---
§483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record;
§483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs;
§483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and
§483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order.
§483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs.
§483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories:
(i) Anti-psychotic;
(ii) Anti-depressant;
(iii) Anti-anxiety; and
(iv) Hypnotic
Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that---
§483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record;
§483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs;
§483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and
§483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order.
§483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.45(g) Labeling of Drugs and Biologicals
Drugs and biologicals used in the facility must be labeled in accordance with currently accepted professional principles, and include the appropriate accessory and cautionary instructions, and the expiration date when applicable.
§483.45(h) Storage of Drugs and Biologicals
§483.45(h)(1) In accordance with State and Federal laws, the facility must store all drugs and biologicals in locked compartments under proper temperature controls, and permit only authorized personnel to have access to the keys.
§483.45(h)(2) The facility must provide separately locked, permanently affixed compartments for storage of controlled drugs listed in Schedule II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1976 and other drugs subject to abuse, except when the facility uses single unit package drug distribution systems in which the quantity stored is minimal and a missing dose can be readily detected. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.45(g) Labeling of Drugs and Biologicals
Drugs and biologicals used in the facility must be labeled in accordance with currently accepted professional principles, and include the appropriate accessory and cautionary instructions, and the expiration date when applicable.
§483.45(h) Storage of Drugs and Biologicals
§483.45(h)(1) In accordance with State and Federal laws, the facility must store all drugs and biologicals in locked compartments under proper temperature controls, and permit only authorized personnel to have access to the keys.
§483.45(h)(2) The facility must provide separately locked, permanently affixed compartments for storage of controlled drugs listed in Schedule II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1976 and other drugs subject to abuse, except when the facility uses single unit package drug distribution systems in which the quantity stored is minimal and a missing dose can be readily detected. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.45(g) Labeling of Drugs and Biologicals
Drugs and biologicals used in the facility must be labeled in accordance with currently accepted professional principles, and include the appropriate accessory and cautionary instructions, and the expiration date when applicable.
§483.45(h) Storage of Drugs and Biologicals
§483.45(h)(1) In accordance with State and Federal laws, the facility must store all drugs and biologicals in locked compartments under proper temperature controls, and permit only authorized personnel to have access to the keys.
§483.45(h)(2) The facility must provide separately locked, permanently affixed compartments for storage of controlled drugs listed in Schedule II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1976 and other drugs subject to abuse, except when the facility uses single unit package drug distribution systems in which the quantity stored is minimal and a missing dose can be readily detected. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.60(h) Paid feeding assistants-
§483.60(h)(1) State approved training course. A facility may use a paid feeding assistant, as defined in § 488.301 of this chapter, if-
(i) The feeding assistant has successfully completed a State-approved training course that meets the requirements of §483.160 before feeding residents; and
(ii) The use of feeding assistants is consistent with State law.
§483.60(h)(2) Supervision.
(i) A feeding assistant must work under the supervision of a registered nurse (RN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN).
(ii) In an emergency, a feeding assistant must call a supervisory nurse for help.
§483.60(h)(3) Resident selection criteria.
(i) A facility must ensure that a feeding assistant provides dining assistance only for residents who have no complicated feeding problems.
(ii) Complicated feeding problems include, but are not limited to, difficulty swallowing, recurrent lung aspirations, and tube or parenteral/IV feedings.
(iii) The facility must base resident selection on the interdisciplinary team's assessment and the resident's latest assessment and plan of care. Appropriateness for this program should be reflected in the comprehensive care plan. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.60(h) Paid feeding assistants-
§483.60(h)(1) State approved training course. A facility may use a paid feeding assistant, as defined in § 488.301 of this chapter, if-
(i) The feeding assistant has successfully completed a State-approved training course that meets the requirements of §483.160 before feeding residents; and
(ii) The use of feeding assistants is consistent with State law.
§483.60(h)(2) Supervision.
(i) A feeding assistant must work under the supervision of a registered nurse (RN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN).
(ii) In an emergency, a feeding assistant must call a supervisory nurse for help.
§483.60(h)(3) Resident selection criteria.
(i) A facility must ensure that a feeding assistant provides dining assistance only for residents who have no complicated feeding problems.
(ii) Complicated feeding problems include, but are not limited to, difficulty swallowing, recurrent lung aspirations, and tube or parenteral/IV feedings.
(iii) The facility must base resident selection on the interdisciplinary team's assessment and the resident's latest assessment and plan of care. Appropriateness for this program should be reflected in the comprehensive care plan. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.60(h) Paid feeding assistants-
§483.60(h)(1) State approved training course. A facility may use a paid feeding assistant, as defined in § 488.301 of this chapter, if-
(i) The feeding assistant has successfully completed a State-approved training course that meets the requirements of §483.160 before feeding residents; and
(ii) The use of feeding assistants is consistent with State law.
§483.60(h)(2) Supervision.
(i) A feeding assistant must work under the supervision of a registered nurse (RN) or licensed practical nurse (LPN).
(ii) In an emergency, a feeding assistant must call a supervisory nurse for help.
§483.60(h)(3) Resident selection criteria.
(i) A facility must ensure that a feeding assistant provides dining assistance only for residents who have no complicated feeding problems.
(ii) Complicated feeding problems include, but are not limited to, difficulty swallowing, recurrent lung aspirations, and tube or parenteral/IV feedings.
(iii) The facility must base resident selection on the interdisciplinary team's assessment and the resident's latest assessment and plan of care. Appropriateness for this program should be reflected in the comprehensive care plan. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Some |
| §483.60(i) Food safety requirements.
The facility must -
§483.60(i)(1) - Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities.
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.
§483.60(i)(2) - Store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.60(i) Food safety requirements.
The facility must -
§483.60(i)(1) - Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities.
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.
§483.60(i)(2) - Store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.60(i) Food safety requirements.
The facility must -
§483.60(i)(1) - Procure food from sources approved or considered satisfactory by federal, state or local authorities.
(i) This may include food items obtained directly from local producers, subject to applicable State and local laws or regulations.
(ii) This provision does not prohibit or prevent facilities from using produce grown in facility gardens, subject to compliance with applicable safe growing and food-handling practices.
(iii) This provision does not preclude residents from consuming foods not procured by the facility.
§483.60(i)(2) - Store, prepare, distribute and serve food in accordance with professional standards for food service safety. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.75(g) Quality assessment and assurance.
§483.75(g)(1) A facility must maintain a quality assessment and assurance committee consisting at a minimum of:
(i) The director of nursing services;
(ii) The Medical Director or his/her designee;
(iii) At least three other members of the facility's staff, at least one of who must be the administrator, owner, a board member or other individual in a leadership role;
§483.75(g)(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee must:
(i) Meet at least quarterly and as needed to identifying issues with respect to which quality assessment and assurance activities are necessary. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.75(g) Quality assessment and assurance.
§483.75(g)(1) A facility must maintain a quality assessment and assurance committee consisting at a minimum of:
(i) The director of nursing services;
(ii) The Medical Director or his/her designee;
(iii) At least three other members of the facility's staff, at least one of who must be the administrator, owner, a board member or other individual in a leadership role;
§483.75(g)(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee must:
(i) Meet at least quarterly and as needed to identifying issues with respect to which quality assessment and assurance activities are necessary. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.75(g) Quality assessment and assurance.
§483.75(g)(1) A facility must maintain a quality assessment and assurance committee consisting at a minimum of:
(i) The director of nursing services;
(ii) The Medical Director or his/her designee;
(iii) At least three other members of the facility's staff, at least one of who must be the administrator, owner, a board member or other individual in a leadership role;
§483.75(g)(2) The quality assessment and assurance committee must:
(i) Meet at least quarterly and as needed to identifying issues with respect to which quality assessment and assurance activities are necessary. |
4/20/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Few |
| §483.80 Infection Control
The facility must establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary and comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases and infections.
§483.80(a) Infection prevention and control program.
The facility must establish an infection prevention and control program (IPCP) that must include, at a minimum, the following elements:
§483.80(a)(1) A system for preventing, identifying, reporting, investigating, and controlling infections and communicable diseases for all residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, and other individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement based upon the facility assessment conducted according to §483.70(e) and following accepted national standards;
§483.80(a)(2) Written standards, policies, and procedures for the program, which must include, but are not limited to:
(i) A system of surveillance designed to identify possible communicable diseases or
infections before they can spread to other persons in the facility;
(ii) When and to whom possible incidents of communicable disease or infections should be reported;
(iii) Standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections;
(iv)When and how isolation should be used for a resident; including but not limited to:
(A) The type and duration of the isolation, depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and
(B) A requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.
(v) The circumstances under which the facility must prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit the disease; and
(vi)The hand hygiene procedures to be followed by staff involved in direct resident contact.
§483.80(a)(4) A system for recording incidents identified under the facility's IPCP and the corrective actions taken by the facility.
§483.80(e) Linens.
Personnel must handle, store, process, and transport linens so as to prevent the spread of infection.
§483.80(f) Annual review.
The facility will conduct an annual review of its IPCP and update their program, as necessary. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.80 Infection Control
The facility must establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary and comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases and infections.
§483.80(a) Infection prevention and control program.
The facility must establish an infection prevention and control program (IPCP) that must include, at a minimum, the following elements:
§483.80(a)(1) A system for preventing, identifying, reporting, investigating, and controlling infections and communicable diseases for all residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, and other individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement based upon the facility assessment conducted according to §483.70(e) and following accepted national standards;
§483.80(a)(2) Written standards, policies, and procedures for the program, which must include, but are not limited to:
(i) A system of surveillance designed to identify possible communicable diseases or
infections before they can spread to other persons in the facility;
(ii) When and to whom possible incidents of communicable disease or infections should be reported;
(iii) Standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections;
(iv)When and how isolation should be used for a resident; including but not limited to:
(A) The type and duration of the isolation, depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and
(B) A requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.
(v) The circumstances under which the facility must prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit the disease; and
(vi)The hand hygiene procedures to be followed by staff involved in direct resident contact.
§483.80(a)(4) A system for recording incidents identified under the facility's IPCP and the corrective actions taken by the facility.
§483.80(e) Linens.
Personnel must handle, store, process, and transport linens so as to prevent the spread of infection.
§483.80(f) Annual review.
The facility will conduct an annual review of its IPCP and update their program, as necessary. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.80 Infection Control
The facility must establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary and comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases and infections.
§483.80(a) Infection prevention and control program.
The facility must establish an infection prevention and control program (IPCP) that must include, at a minimum, the following elements:
§483.80(a)(1) A system for preventing, identifying, reporting, investigating, and controlling infections and communicable diseases for all residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, and other individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement based upon the facility assessment conducted according to §483.70(e) and following accepted national standards;
§483.80(a)(2) Written standards, policies, and procedures for the program, which must include, but are not limited to:
(i) A system of surveillance designed to identify possible communicable diseases or
infections before they can spread to other persons in the facility;
(ii) When and to whom possible incidents of communicable disease or infections should be reported;
(iii) Standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections;
(iv)When and how isolation should be used for a resident; including but not limited to:
(A) The type and duration of the isolation, depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and
(B) A requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances.
(v) The circumstances under which the facility must prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit the disease; and
(vi)The hand hygiene procedures to be followed by staff involved in direct resident contact.
§483.80(a)(4) A system for recording incidents identified under the facility's IPCP and the corrective actions taken by the facility.
§483.80(e) Linens.
Personnel must handle, store, process, and transport linens so as to prevent the spread of infection.
§483.80(f) Annual review.
The facility will conduct an annual review of its IPCP and update their program, as necessary. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.90(g) Resident Call System
The facility must be adequately equipped to allow residents to call for staff assistance through a communication system which relays the call directly to a staff member or to a centralized staff work area.
§483.90(g)(2) Toilet and bathing facilities. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.90(g) Resident Call System
The facility must be adequately equipped to allow residents to call for staff assistance through a communication system which relays the call directly to a staff member or to a centralized staff work area.
§483.90(g)(2) Toilet and bathing facilities. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| §483.90(g) Resident Call System
The facility must be adequately equipped to allow residents to call for staff assistance through a communication system which relays the call directly to a staff member or to a centralized staff work area.
§483.90(g)(2) Toilet and bathing facilities. |
7/22/2022
| No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy | Many |
| The facility shall be equipped with a call system that consists of an electrical intercommunication system, a wireless pager system, a buzzer system, or hand bells for each resident bed, toilet room, and bathroom. The call system shall be audible in the attendant's work area and be in compliance with 19 CSR 30-85.012(124). II/III
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7/22/2022
| | |
| The facility shall maintain furniture and equipment in good condition and shall replace it if broken, torn, heavily soiled or damaged. Rooms shall be designed and furnished so that the comfort and safety of the residents are provided for at all times. II/III
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7/22/2022
| | |
| All facilities shall employ a director of nursing on a full-time basis who shall be responsible for the quality of patient care and supervision of personnel rendering patient care. II
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4/20/2022
| | |
| Licensed Nursing Requirements; Skilled Nursing Facility.
(B) A registered nurse shall be on duty in the facility on the day shift. Either a licensed practical nurse (LPN) or a registered professional nurse (RN) shall be on duty in the facility on both the evening and night shifts. II
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7/22/2022
| | |
| All facilities shall employ nursing personnel in sufficient numbers and with sufficient qualifications to provide nursing and related services which enable each resident to attain or maintain the highest practicable level of physical, mental and psychosocial well-being. Each facility shall have a licensed nurse in charge who is responsible for evaluating the needs of the residents on a daily and continuous basis to ensure there are sufficient, trained staff present to meet those needs. I/II
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4/20/2022
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| There shall be a safe and effective system of medication distribution, administration, control, and use. I/II
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7/22/2022
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| Facilities shall store all external and internal medications at appropriate temperatures in a safe, clean place and in an orderly manner apart from foodstuffs and dangerous chemicals. A facility shall secure all medications, including those refrigerated, behind at least one (1) locked door or cabinet. Facilities shall store containers of discontinued medication separately from current medications. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II
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7/22/2022
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| Taking into consideration the resident's preferences, residents shall be well-groomed and dressed appropriately for the time of day, the environment and any identified medical conditions. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| Facilities shall provide each resident, according to his/her needs, with restorative nursing to encourage independence, activity and self-help to maintain strength and mobility. Each resident shall be out of bed as desired unless medically contraindicated. II
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7/22/2022
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| The facility shall designate an employee to be responsible for the activity program. The designated person shall be capable of identifying activity needs of residents, designing and implementing programs to maintain or increase, or both, the resident's capability in activities of daily living. Facilities shall provide activity programs on a regular basis. Each resident shall have a planned activity program which includes individualized activities, group activities, and activities outside the facility as appropriate to his/her needs and interests. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| Deodorizers or sprays shall not be used to cover up odors. Odors shall be eliminated to the source by prompt cleaning of bedpans and commodes, floors, furniture and equipment and by proper ventilation. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| All floors in the facility shall be clean and shall be maintained in good repair. Floors and floor coverings of all food-preparation, food-storage and utensil-washing areas, and the floors of all walk-in refrigerating units, dressing rooms, locker rooms, toilet rooms and vestibules shall be constructed of smooth durable material such as sealed concrete, terrazzo, ceramic tile, durable grades of linoleum or plastic, or tight wood impregnated with plastic. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the use of antislip floor covering in areas where necessary for safety reasons. III
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7/22/2022
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| Walls and ceilings, including doors, windows and skylights, shall be clean and maintained in good repair. III
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7/22/2022
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| The walls, including nonsupporting partitions, wall coverings and ceilings of walk-in refrigerating units, food-preparation areas, equipment-washing and utensil-washing areas, toilet rooms and vestibules shall be smooth, nonabsorbent and easily cleanable. Concrete or pumice blocks used for interior wall construction in these locations shall be finished and sealed to provide an easily cleanable surface. III
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7/22/2022
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| Light fixtures, vent covers, wall-mounted fans, decorative materials and similar equipment attached to walls and ceilings shall be easily cleanable and shall be maintained clean and in good repair. III
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7/22/2022
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| Nonfood-contact surfaces of equipment shall be cleaned as often as is necessary to keep the equipment free of accumulation of dust, dirt, food particles and other debris. III
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7/22/2022
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| Each resident shall be treated with consideration, respect, and full recognition of his or her dignity and individuality, including privacy in treatment and care of his or her personal needs. All persons, other than the attending physician, the facility personnel necessary for any treatment or personal care, or the department or Department of Mental Health staff, as appropriate, shall be excluded from observing the resident during any time of examination, treatment, or care unless consent has been given by the resident. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| The resident, or his or her next of kin, legally authorized representative, or designee shall receive an itemized bill for all goods and services actually rendered. No later than thirty (30) days after the discharge or death of a resident, the operator of the facility shall submit a final itemized bill for all goods and services rendered, showing any credit balances accruing on the date of discharge or death of the resident, and a complete account of the resident ' s remaining funds with the facility, in any account, with whatever title the account(s) may be known, to the resident ' s guardian, conservator, fiduciary of the resident ' s estate, or the individual who was designated to receive the quarterly accounting of all financial transactions made. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| The operator or other designated person shall use the personal funds of the resident exclusively for the use of the resident and only when authorized in writing by the resident, his/her designee, guardian and conservator, or conservator. A designee shall not be the administrator or an employee of the facility. With written authorization, the operator may purchase a burial policy for the resident. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| The separate account(s) required to be maintained by section 198.090.1.(3), RSMo, shall be maintained in a bank or savings and loan association and if any interest is accrued it shall be credited to each resident ' s account at least monthly. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| All written accounts of the residents ' funds shall be reconciled monthly and a written statement showing the current balance and all transactions shall be given to the resident, his/her designee, guardian and conservator, or conservator on a quarterly basis. II/III
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7/22/2022
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| Within five (5) calendar days of the discharge of a resident, the resident, his/her designee, guardian and conservator, or conservator shall be given an up-to-date accounting of the resident ' s personal funds and the balance of the funds and all personal possessions shall be returned to the resident. This requirement shall not apply for residents discharged due to death, or for residents discharged to hospitals when those residents are expected to return to the facility. The operator shall have a receipt for all funds and possessions returned to the resident, his/her designee, guardian and conservator, or conservator. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| Upon the death of a resident, the operator shall contact the Department of Social Services (DSS), MO HealthNet Division, Third Party Liability Unit, to determine if the deceased resident is a MO HealthNet participant or has been a recipient of aid, assistance, care, services, or if the resident has had moneys expended on his/her behalf by DSS. The facility shall document the contact(s) with and response(s) from DSS. II/III
(A) If the deceased resident is a MO HealthNet participant or has been a recipient of aid, assistance, care, services, or the resident has had moneys expended on his/her behalf by DSS, the operator shall provide DSS within sixty (60) days of the resident ' s death, a complete account of all the resident ' s remaining personal funds and the name and address of the resident ' s designee, guardian and conservator, or conservator, fiduciary of the resident ' s estate, or the individual who was designated to receive the quarterly accounting of all financial transactions made. Personal funds for the purpose of this regulation shall include all the resident ' s remaining funds with the facility, in any account, with whatever title the account(s) may be known. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| Upon the death of a resident who has not been a recipient of aid, assistance, care, services, or who has not had moneys expended on the resident ' s behalf by DSS or DSS has not made claim on the funds, the operator shall provide the fiduciary or resident ' s estate, at the fiduciary ' s request, a complete account of all the resident ' s personal funds and possessions and deliver to the fiduciary all possessions of the resident and the balance of the resident ' s funds. II/III
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4/20/2022
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| The bond required by section 198.096, RSMo, for operators holding personal funds of residents shall be in a form approved by the department and shall provide that residents who allege that they have been wrongfully deprived of moneys held in trust may bring an action for recovery directly against the surety. The bond shall be in an amount equal to at least one and one-half (1 1/2) times the average monthly balance of the residents ' personal funds, including residents ' petty cash, or the average total of the monthly balances for the preceding twelve (12) months. The average monthly balance(s) or the average total of the monthly balance(s) shall be rounded to the nearest one thousand dollars ($1,000). One (1) bond may be used to cover the residents ' funds in more than one (1) facility operated by the same operator, if the facility is a multilicensed facility on the same premises. If not on the same premises, then one (1) bond may be used if the bond specifies the amount of coverage provided for each individual facility and the coverage for each facility is a minimum of one thousand dollars ($1,000). II/III
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4/20/2022
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Missouri Department of Health & Senior Services