Inspection Results
-
Facility failed to meet the following Requirement(s):Corrected DateLevel of HarmResidents Affected
    
§483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans §483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following - (i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and (ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6). (iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record. (iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)- (A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes. (B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose. (C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans §483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following - (i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and (ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6). (iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record. (iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)- (A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes. (B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose. (C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans §483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following - (i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and (ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6). (iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record. (iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)- (A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes. (B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose. (C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans §483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following - (i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and (ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6). (iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record. (iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)- (A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes. (B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose. (C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b)(3) Comprehensive Care Plans The services provided or arranged by the facility, as outlined by the comprehensive care plan, must- (i) Meet professional standards of quality. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b)(3) Comprehensive Care Plans The services provided or arranged by the facility, as outlined by the comprehensive care plan, must- (i) Meet professional standards of quality. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b)(3) Comprehensive Care Plans The services provided or arranged by the facility, as outlined by the comprehensive care plan, must- (i) Meet professional standards of quality. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.21(b)(3) Comprehensive Care Plans The services provided or arranged by the facility, as outlined by the comprehensive care plan, must- (i) Meet professional standards of quality. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs. §483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories: (i) Anti-psychotic; (ii) Anti-depressant; (iii) Anti-anxiety; and (iv) Hypnotic Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that--- §483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record; §483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs; §483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and §483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order. §483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs. §483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories: (i) Anti-psychotic; (ii) Anti-depressant; (iii) Anti-anxiety; and (iv) Hypnotic Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that--- §483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record; §483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs; §483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and §483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order. §483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs. §483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories: (i) Anti-psychotic; (ii) Anti-depressant; (iii) Anti-anxiety; and (iv) Hypnotic Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that--- §483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record; §483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs; §483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and §483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order. §483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.45(e) Psychotropic Drugs. §483.45(c)(3) A psychotropic drug is any drug that affects brain activities associated with mental processes and behavior. These drugs include, but are not limited to, drugs in the following categories: (i) Anti-psychotic; (ii) Anti-depressant; (iii) Anti-anxiety; and (iv) Hypnotic Based on a comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that--- §483.45(e)(1) Residents who have not used psychotropic drugs are not given these drugs unless the medication is necessary to treat a specific condition as diagnosed and documented in the clinical record; §483.45(e)(2) Residents who use psychotropic drugs receive gradual dose reductions, and behavioral interventions, unless clinically contraindicated, in an effort to discontinue these drugs; §483.45(e)(3) Residents do not receive psychotropic drugs pursuant to a PRN order unless that medication is necessary to treat a diagnosed specific condition that is documented in the clinical record; and §483.45(e)(4) PRN orders for psychotropic drugs are limited to 14 days. Except as provided in §483.45(e)(5), if the attending physician or prescribing practitioner believes that it is appropriate for the PRN order to be extended beyond 14 days, he or she should document their rationale in the resident's medical record and indicate the duration for the PRN order. §483.45(e)(5) PRN orders for anti-psychotic drugs are limited to 14 days and cannot be renewed unless the attending physician or prescribing practitioner evaluates the resident for the appropriateness of that medication. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.60(a) Staffing The facility must employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e) This includes: §483.60(a)(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who- (i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose. (ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional. (iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a State that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a "registered dietitian" by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. (iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law. §483.60(a)(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services who- (i) For designations prior to November 28, 2016, meets the following requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016, or no later than 1 year after November 28, 2016 for designations after November 28, 2016, is: (A) A certified dietary manager; or (B) A certified food service manager; or (C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; and (ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and (iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.60(a) Staffing The facility must employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e) This includes: §483.60(a)(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who- (i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose. (ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional. (iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a State that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a "registered dietitian" by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. (iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law. §483.60(a)(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services who- (i) For designations prior to November 28, 2016, meets the following requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016, or no later than 1 year after November 28, 2016 for designations after November 28, 2016, is: (A) A certified dietary manager; or (B) A certified food service manager; or (C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; and (ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and (iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.60(a) Staffing The facility must employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e) This includes: §483.60(a)(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who- (i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose. (ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional. (iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a State that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a "registered dietitian" by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. (iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law. §483.60(a)(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services who- (i) For designations prior to November 28, 2016, meets the following requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016, or no later than 1 year after November 28, 2016 for designations after November 28, 2016, is: (A) A certified dietary manager; or (B) A certified food service manager; or (C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; and (ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and (iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.60(a) Staffing The facility must employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.70(e) This includes: §483.60(a)(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who- (i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose. (ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional. (iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a State that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a "registered dietitian" by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. (iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law. §483.60(a)(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services who- (i) For designations prior to November 28, 2016, meets the following requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016, or no later than 1 year after November 28, 2016 for designations after November 28, 2016, is: (A) A certified dietary manager; or (B) A certified food service manager; or (C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; and (ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and (iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.60(i)(3) Have a policy regarding use and storage of foods brought to residents by family and other visitors to ensure safe and sanitary storage, handling, and consumption. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.60(i)(3) Have a policy regarding use and storage of foods brought to residents by family and other visitors to ensure safe and sanitary storage, handling, and consumption. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.60(i)(3) Have a policy regarding use and storage of foods brought to residents by family and other visitors to ensure safe and sanitary storage, handling, and consumption. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.60(i)(3) Have a policy regarding use and storage of foods brought to residents by family and other visitors to ensure safe and sanitary storage, handling, and consumption. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.90(h) Dining and Resident Activities The facility must provide one or more rooms designated for resident dining and activities. These rooms must-- §483.90(h)(1) Be well lighted; §483.90(h)(2) Be well ventilated; §483.90(h)(3) Be adequately furnished; and §483.90(h)(4) Have sufficient space to accommodate all activities. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.90(h) Dining and Resident Activities The facility must provide one or more rooms designated for resident dining and activities. These rooms must-- §483.90(h)(1) Be well lighted; §483.90(h)(2) Be well ventilated; §483.90(h)(3) Be adequately furnished; and §483.90(h)(4) Have sufficient space to accommodate all activities. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.90(h) Dining and Resident Activities The facility must provide one or more rooms designated for resident dining and activities. These rooms must-- §483.90(h)(1) Be well lighted; §483.90(h)(2) Be well ventilated; §483.90(h)(3) Be adequately furnished; and §483.90(h)(4) Have sufficient space to accommodate all activities. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.90(h) Dining and Resident Activities The facility must provide one or more rooms designated for resident dining and activities. These rooms must-- §483.90(h)(1) Be well lighted; §483.90(h)(2) Be well ventilated; §483.90(h)(3) Be adequately furnished; and §483.90(h)(4) Have sufficient space to accommodate all activities. 5/10/2019 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II 5/10/2019   
Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II 5/10/2019   
Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II 5/10/2019   
Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II 5/10/2019   
Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II 5/10/2019   
Each resident shall receive personal attention and nursing care in accordance with his/her condition and consistent with current acceptable nursing practice. I/II 5/10/2019   
All residents who require assistance at mealtimes, whether it be preparation of the food items or actual feeding, shall be provided the assistance upon delivery of the tray. Facilities shall provide dining room supervision during meals. II/III 5/10/2019   
All residents who require assistance at mealtimes, whether it be preparation of the food items or actual feeding, shall be provided the assistance upon delivery of the tray. Facilities shall provide dining room supervision during meals. II/III 5/10/2019   
All residents who require assistance at mealtimes, whether it be preparation of the food items or actual feeding, shall be provided the assistance upon delivery of the tray. Facilities shall provide dining room supervision during meals. II/III 5/10/2019   
All residents who require assistance at mealtimes, whether it be preparation of the food items or actual feeding, shall be provided the assistance upon delivery of the tray. Facilities shall provide dining room supervision during meals. II/III 5/10/2019   
All residents who require assistance at mealtimes, whether it be preparation of the food items or actual feeding, shall be provided the assistance upon delivery of the tray. Facilities shall provide dining room supervision during meals. II/III 5/10/2019   
All residents who require assistance at mealtimes, whether it be preparation of the food items or actual feeding, shall be provided the assistance upon delivery of the tray. Facilities shall provide dining room supervision during meals. II/III 5/10/2019   
There shall be sufficient personnel properly trained in their duties to assure adequate preparation and serving of food. II 5/10/2019   
There shall be sufficient personnel properly trained in their duties to assure adequate preparation and serving of food. II 5/10/2019   
There shall be sufficient personnel properly trained in their duties to assure adequate preparation and serving of food. II 5/10/2019   
There shall be sufficient personnel properly trained in their duties to assure adequate preparation and serving of food. II 5/10/2019   
There shall be sufficient personnel properly trained in their duties to assure adequate preparation and serving of food. II 5/10/2019   
There shall be sufficient personnel properly trained in their duties to assure adequate preparation and serving of food. II 5/10/2019