Inspection Results
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Facility failed to meet the following Requirement(s):Corrected DateLevel of HarmResidents Affected
    
§483.10(a) Resident Rights. The resident has a right to a dignified existence, self-determination, and communication with and access to persons and services inside and outside the facility, including those specified in this section. §483.10(a)(1) A facility must treat each resident with respect and dignity and care for each resident in a manner and in an environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of his or her quality of life, recognizing each resident's individuality. The facility must protect and promote the rights of the resident. §483.10(a)(2) The facility must provide equal access to quality care regardless of diagnosis, severity of condition, or payment source. A facility must establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge, and the provision of services under the State plan for all residents regardless of payment source. §483.10(b) Exercise of Rights. The resident has the right to exercise his or her rights as a resident of the facility and as a citizen or resident of the United States. §483.10(b)(1) The facility must ensure that the resident can exercise his or her rights without interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal from the facility. §483.10(b)(2) The resident has the right to be free of interference, coercion, discrimination, and reprisal from the facility in exercising his or her rights and to be supported by the facility in the exercise of his or her rights as required under this subpart. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.10(i) Safe Environment. The resident has a right to a safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment, including but not limited to receiving treatment and supports for daily living safely. The facility must provide- §483.10(i)(1) A safe, clean, comfortable, and homelike environment, allowing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible. (i) This includes ensuring that the resident can receive care and services safely and that the physical layout of the facility maximizes resident independence and does not pose a safety risk. (ii) The facility shall exercise reasonable care for the protection of the resident's property from loss or theft. §483.10(i)(2) Housekeeping and maintenance services necessary to maintain a sanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior; §483.10(i)(3) Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition; §483.10(i)(4) Private closet space in each resident room, as specified in §483.90 (e)(2)(iv); §483.10(i)(5) Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas; §483.10(i)(6) Comfortable and safe temperature levels. Facilities initially certified after October 1, 1990 must maintain a temperature range of 71 to 81°F; and §483.10(i)(7) For the maintenance of comfortable sound levels. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.20(b)(2)(ii) Within 14 days after the facility determines, or should have determined, that there has been a significant change in the resident's physical or mental condition. (For purpose of this section, a "significant change" means a major decline or improvement in the resident's status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions, that has an impact on more than one area of the resident's health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan, or both.) 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.20(f) Automated data processing requirement- §483.20(f)(1) Encoding data. Within 7 days after a facility completes a resident's assessment, a facility must encode the following information for each resident in the facility: (i) Admission assessment. (ii) Annual assessment updates. (iii) Significant change in status assessments. (iv) Quarterly review assessments. (v) A subset of items upon a resident's transfer, reentry, discharge, and death. (vi) Background (face-sheet) information, if there is no admission assessment. §483.20(f)(2) Transmitting data. Within 7 days after a facility completes a resident's assessment, a facility must be capable of transmitting to the CMS System information for each resident contained in the MDS in a format that conforms to standard record layouts and data dictionaries, and that passes standardized edits defined by CMS and the State. §483.20(f)(3) Transmittal requirements. Within 14 days after a facility completes a resident's assessment, a facility must electronically transmit encoded, accurate, and complete MDS data to the CMS System, including the following: (i)Admission assessment. (ii) Annual assessment. (iii) Significant change in status assessment. (iv) Significant correction of prior full assessment. (v) Significant correction of prior quarterly assessment. (vi) Quarterly review. (vii) A subset of items upon a resident's transfer, reentry, discharge, and death. (viii) Background (face-sheet) information, for an initial transmission of MDS data on resident that does not have an admission assessment. §483.20(f)(4) Data format. The facility must transmit data in the format specified by CMS or, for a State which has an alternate RAI approved by CMS, in the format specified by the State and approved by CMS. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans §483.21(b)(1) The facility must develop and implement a comprehensive person-centered care plan for each resident, consistent with the resident rights set forth at §483.10(c)(2) and §483.10(c)(3), that includes measurable objectives and timeframes to meet a resident's medical, nursing, and mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in the comprehensive assessment. The comprehensive care plan must describe the following - (i) The services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being as required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40; and (ii) Any services that would otherwise be required under §483.24, §483.25 or §483.40 but are not provided due to the resident's exercise of rights under §483.10, including the right to refuse treatment under §483.10(c)(6). (iii) Any specialized services or specialized rehabilitative services the nursing facility will provide as a result of PASARR recommendations. If a facility disagrees with the findings of the PASARR, it must indicate its rationale in the resident's medical record. (iv)In consultation with the resident and the resident's representative(s)- (A) The resident's goals for admission and desired outcomes. (B) The resident's preference and potential for future discharge. Facilities must document whether the resident's desire to return to the community was assessed and any referrals to local contact agencies and/or other appropriate entities, for this purpose. (C) Discharge plans in the comprehensive care plan, as appropriate, in accordance with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. §483.21(b)(3) The services provided or arranged by the facility, as outlined by the comprehensive care plan, must- (iii) Be culturally-competent and trauma-informed. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.21(b) Comprehensive Care Plans §483.21(b)(2) A comprehensive care plan must be- (i) Developed within 7 days after completion of the comprehensive assessment. (ii) Prepared by an interdisciplinary team, that includes but is not limited to-- (A) The attending physician. (B) A registered nurse with responsibility for the resident. (C) A nurse aide with responsibility for the resident. (D) A member of food and nutrition services staff. (E) To the extent practicable, the participation of the resident and the resident's representative(s). An explanation must be included in a resident's medical record if the participation of the resident and their resident representative is determined not practicable for the development of the resident's care plan. (F) Other appropriate staff or professionals in disciplines as determined by the resident's needs or as requested by the resident. (iii)Reviewed and revised by the interdisciplinary team after each assessment, including both the comprehensive and quarterly review assessments. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardySome
§483.25(b) Skin Integrity §483.25(b)(1) Pressure ulcers. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that- (i) A resident receives care, consistent with professional standards of practice, to prevent pressure ulcers and does not develop pressure ulcers unless the individual's clinical condition demonstrates that they were unavoidable; and (ii) A resident with pressure ulcers receives necessary treatment and services, consistent with professional standards of practice, to promote healing, prevent infection and prevent new ulcers from developing. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.25(g) Assisted nutrition and hydration. (Includes naso-gastric and gastrostomy tubes, both percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy and percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy, and enteral fluids). Based on a resident's comprehensive assessment, the facility must ensure that a resident- §483.25(g)(1) Maintains acceptable parameters of nutritional status, such as usual body weight or desirable body weight range and electrolyte balance, unless the resident's clinical condition demonstrates that this is not possible or resident preferences indicate otherwise; §483.25(g)(2) Is offered sufficient fluid intake to maintain proper hydration and health; §483.25(g)(3) Is offered a therapeutic diet when there is a nutritional problem and the health care provider orders a therapeutic diet. 2/20/2025 Actual Harm that is not imediate jeopardyFew
§483.35(b) Registered nurse §483.35(b)(1) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must use the services of a registered nurse for at least 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week. §483.35(b)(2) Except when waived under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the facility must designate a registered nurse to serve as the director of nursing on a full time basis. §483.35(b)(3) The director of nursing may serve as a charge nurse only when the facility has an average daily occupancy of 60 or fewer residents. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.35(g) Nurse Staffing Information. §483.35(g)(1) Data requirements. The facility must post the following information on a daily basis: (i) Facility name. (ii) The current date. (iii) The total number and the actual hours worked by the following categories of licensed and unlicensed nursing staff directly responsible for resident care per shift: (A) Registered nurses. (B) Licensed practical nurses or licensed vocational nurses (as defined under State law). (C) Certified nurse aides. (iv) Resident census. §483.35(g)(2) Posting requirements. (i) The facility must post the nurse staffing data specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section on a daily basis at the beginning of each shift. (ii) Data must be posted as follows: (A) Clear and readable format. (B) In a prominent place readily accessible to residents and visitors. §483.35(g)(3) Public access to posted nurse staffing data. The facility must, upon oral or written request, make nurse staffing data available to the public for review at a cost not to exceed the community standard. §483.35(g)(4) Facility data retention requirements. The facility must maintain the posted daily nurse staffing data for a minimum of 18 months, or as required by State law, whichever is greater. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for minimal harm; correction not required by date of revisitMany
§483.60(a) Staffing The facility must employ sufficient staff with the appropriate competencies and skills sets to carry out the functions of the food and nutrition service, taking into consideration resident assessments, individual plans of care and the number, acuity and diagnoses of the facility's resident population in accordance with the facility assessment required at §483.71. This includes: §483.60(a)(1) A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional either full-time, part-time, or on a consultant basis. A qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is one who- (i) Holds a bachelor's or higher degree granted by a regionally accredited college or university in the United States (or an equivalent foreign degree) with completion of the academic requirements of a program in nutrition or dietetics accredited by an appropriate national accreditation organization recognized for this purpose. (ii) Has completed at least 900 hours of supervised dietetics practice under the supervision of a registered dietitian or nutrition professional. (iii) Is licensed or certified as a dietitian or nutrition professional by the State in which the services are performed. In a State that does not provide for licensure or certification, the individual will be deemed to have met this requirement if he or she is recognized as a "registered dietitian" by the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization, or meets the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section. (iv) For dietitians hired or contracted with prior to November 28, 2016, meets these requirements no later than 5 years after November 28, 2016 or as required by state law. §483.60(a)(2) If a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional is not employed full-time, the facility must designate a person to serve as the director of food and nutrition services. (i) The director of food and nutrition services must at a minimum meet one of the following qualifications- (A) A certified dietary manager; or (B) A certified food service manager; or (C) Has similar national certification for food service management and safety from a national certifying body; or D) Has an associate's or higher degree in food service management or in hospitality, if the course study includes food service or restaurant management, from an accredited institution of higher learning; or (E) Has 2 or more years of experience in the position of director of food and nutrition services in a nursing facility setting and has completed a course of study in food safety and management, by no later than October 1, 2023, that includes topics integral to managing dietary operations including, but not limited to, foodborne illness, sanitation procedures, and food purchasing/receiving; and (ii) In States that have established standards for food service managers or dietary managers, meets State requirements for food service managers or dietary managers, and (iii) Receives frequently scheduled consultations from a qualified dietitian or other clinically qualified nutrition professional. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.20(f)(5) Resident-identifiable information. (i) A facility may not release information that is resident-identifiable to the public. (ii) The facility may release information that is resident-identifiable to an agent only in accordance with a contract under which the agent agrees not to use or disclose the information except to the extent the facility itself is permitted to do so. §483.70(h) Medical records. §483.70(h)(1) In accordance with accepted professional standards and practices, the facility must maintain medical records on each resident that are- (i) Complete; (ii) Accurately documented; (iii) Readily accessible; and (iv) Systematically organized §483.70(h)(2) The facility must keep confidential all information contained in the resident's records, regardless of the form or storage method of the records, except when release is- (i) To the individual, or their resident representative where permitted by applicable law; (ii) Required by Law; (iii) For treatment, payment, or health care operations, as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.506; (iv) For public health activities, reporting of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence, health oversight activities, judicial and administrative proceedings, law enforcement purposes, organ donation purposes, research purposes, or to coroners, medical examiners, funeral directors, and to avert a serious threat to health or safety as permitted by and in compliance with 45 CFR 164.512. §483.70(h)(3) The facility must safeguard medical record information against loss, destruction, or unauthorized use. §483.70(h)(4) Medical records must be retained for- (i) The period of time required by State law; or (ii) Five years from the date of discharge when there is no requirement in State law; or (iii) For a minor, 3 years after a resident reaches legal age under State law. §483.70(h)(5) The medical record must contain- (i) Sufficient information to identify the resident; (ii) A record of the resident's assessments; (iii) The comprehensive plan of care and services provided; (iv) The results of any preadmission screening and resident review evaluations and determinations conducted by the State; (v) Physician's, nurse's, and other licensed professional's progress notes; and (vi) Laboratory, radiology and other diagnostic services reports as required under §483.50. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew
§483.80 Infection Control The facility must establish and maintain an infection prevention and control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary and comfortable environment and to help prevent the development and transmission of communicable diseases and infections. §483.80(a) Infection prevention and control program. The facility must establish an infection prevention and control program (IPCP) that must include, at a minimum, the following elements: §483.80(a)(1) A system for preventing, identifying, reporting, investigating, and controlling infections and communicable diseases for all residents, staff, volunteers, visitors, and other individuals providing services under a contractual arrangement based upon the facility assessment conducted according to §483.71 and following accepted national standards; §483.80(a)(2) Written standards, policies, and procedures for the program, which must include, but are not limited to: (i) A system of surveillance designed to identify possible communicable diseases or infections before they can spread to other persons in the facility; (ii) When and to whom possible incidents of communicable disease or infections should be reported; (iii) Standard and transmission-based precautions to be followed to prevent spread of infections; (iv)When and how isolation should be used for a resident; including but not limited to: (A) The type and duration of the isolation, depending upon the infectious agent or organism involved, and (B) A requirement that the isolation should be the least restrictive possible for the resident under the circumstances. (v) The circumstances under which the facility must prohibit employees with a communicable disease or infected skin lesions from direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit the disease; and (vi)The hand hygiene procedures to be followed by staff involved in direct resident contact. §483.80(a)(4) A system for recording incidents identified under the facility's IPCP and the corrective actions taken by the facility. §483.80(e) Linens. Personnel must handle, store, process, and transport linens so as to prevent the spread of infection. §483.80(f) Annual review. The facility will conduct an annual review of its IPCP and update their program, as necessary. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyMany
§483.80(a) Infection prevention and control program. The facility must establish an infection prevention and control program (IPCP) that must include, at a minimum, the following elements: §483.80(a)(3) An antibiotic stewardship program that includes antibiotic use protocols and a system to monitor antibiotic use. 2/20/2025 No actual Harm with potential for More than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardyFew